Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Admission Announcement




Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC 2011-2012 Admission 


Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC will conduct an entrance exam for admission 2011-2012 for various courses in Journalism.


Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Selection Procedure


1. written examination 
2. Group Discussion 
3. interview. 


Candidates who qualify the written examination are called for GD and interview. 


Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Courses Details


Post Graduate Diploma Courses


1. Journalism (English)
2. Journalism (Hindi)
3. Advertising and Public Relations
4. Radio & TV Journalism
5. Journalism (Oriya).


Eligibility criteria For Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC


1. Candidates needs bachelor's degree or equivalent from a recognized institute/university. 
2. Age should be less than 25 years of age as on 1st August, 2011. 


Final year of graduation Students can also apply for IIMC Admission . 


Important Dates For IIMC Admission


Last date of submitting completed application forms Mid week of April, 2011


How to Apply For Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Admission 


Candidates can apply online through website www.iimc.nic.in. Read the instruction how to fill and send the completed application form.


Contact Details For IIMC


Indian Institute of Mass Communication
JNU New Campus
Aruna asif ali road
New Delhi – 110067
Ph – 26742920/60
Fax – 11-26742462
Website: www.iimc.nic.in 

UCO Bank Numerical Ability 2011 Sample Question Paper




UCO Bank Numerical Ability Sample Question Paper


Sample Question Papers of UCO Bank


1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes(b) 25 minutes(c) 28 minutes(d) 34 minutes


2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096(b) 8192(c) 512(d) 1024


3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100(b) 103(c) 78(d) 128


4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes


5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6


6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18


7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45


8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150


9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14


10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17


11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400


12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210


13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50


14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds


15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds


16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40


17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6


18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050


19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m


20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2


21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution


22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2


23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%


24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5


25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400


26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes


27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes


28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300


29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days


30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27


31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %


32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2


33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0


34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450


35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle(b) Midpoint of the diameter(c) Exterior of the triangle(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle


36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180


37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r


39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6


40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3


41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45


42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr


43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32


44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57


46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30


47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21


48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750


49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510


50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31


Answers
1-A, 11-B, 21-C, 31-D, 41-A, 2-B, 12-A, 22-B, 32-D, 42-A, 3-A, 13-D, 23-A, 33-B, 43-B, 4-B 14-D, 24-C, 34-D, 44-C, 5-C, 15-A , 25-B, 35-C, 45-A, 6 -B, 16-C, 26-A, 36-D, 46-C, 7-C, 17-D, 27-B, 37-B, 47-B, 8-D, 18-A, 28-D, 38-C, 48-D, 9-C, 19-C, 29-C, 39-C, 49-B, 10-B, 20-B, 30-B, 40-C, 50-B



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UCO Bank  Previous Year Reasoning Question Paper


1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)


2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)


3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)


4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)


7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)


10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


Directions-(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.


Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets. All planets are satellites.Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)


12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)


13. Statements : All curtains are rods. Some rods are sheets. Some sheets are pillows. Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)


14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)


15. Statements : All switches are plugs. Some plugs are bulbs. All bulbs are sockets. Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E
Directions-(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983


16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)


17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)


18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)


19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)


20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’


21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


Directions-(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


Directions-(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.


31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C– Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


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UCO Bank Previous Year Numerical Ability Solved Question Paper



1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes(b) 25 minutes(c) 28 minutes(d) 34 minutes


2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096(b) 8192(c) 512(d) 1024


3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100(b) 103(c) 78(d) 128


4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes


5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6


6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18


7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45


8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150


9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14


10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17


11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400


12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210


13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50


14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds


15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds


16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40


17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6


18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050


19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m


20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2


21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution


22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2


23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%


24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5


25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400


26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes


27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes


28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300


29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days


30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27


31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %


32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2


33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0


34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450


35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle


36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180


37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre


38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r


39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6


40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3


41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45


42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr


43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32


44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm


45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57


46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30


47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21


48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750


49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510


50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31


Answers
1-A, 11-B, 21-C, 31-D, 41-A, 2-B, 12-A, 22-B, 32-D, 42-A, 3-A, 13-D, 23-A, 33-B, 43-B, 4-B 14-D, 24-C, 34-D, 44-C, 5-C, 15-A , 25-B, 35-C, 45-A, 6 -B, 16-C, 26-A, 36-D, 46-C, 7-C, 17-D, 27-B, 37-B, 47-B, 8-D, 18-A, 28-D, 38-C, 48-D, 9-C, 19-C, 29-C, 39-C, 49-B, 10-B, 20-B, 30-B, 40-C, 50-B



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UCO Bank Po Exam 2006 English Language Solved Paper




UCO Bank Po Exam 2006 English Language Solved Paper


UCO Bank English Solved Question Paper


Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions. For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports. 
This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs. 
However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing. 


1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector? 
(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these


2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these


3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening


4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market
(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these


5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these


6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these


7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these


8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional


9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk


10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.


11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these


Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge


13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.


14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically


15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.
(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.
(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness. 
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.


16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F


17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F


18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F


19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F


20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F 


Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). 


21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)


22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)




23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)




24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5) 


25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)


26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5) 


27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5) 


28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5) 


29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)


30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5) 


Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.

31. When do you intend to return back home? 
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required


32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required


33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required


34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required


35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required


36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point. 
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required


37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required


38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required


39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required


40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Require


Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc. 
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.


41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through


42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing
43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want
44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance
45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited
47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively
48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past
49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular
50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

ANSWERS:-
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)



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